REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafYoma 30
YOMA 27, 28, 29 (16 Shevat), 30 - have been dedicated by Gitle Bekelnitzky
for the 38th Yahrzeit of Leah bas Mordechai Dovid and Chasya (Bikelnitzky),
mother of her late husband, Simcha Bekelnitzky.
(a) It is obvious that, after going to the bathroom, a Kohen needed to make
Kidush *Raglayim*, because of the drops. But why did he need to make Kidush
(b) What problem does the Gemara have with Rav Papa, who declared that a
person who has 'excrement in its place' is forbidden to recite the Shema?
Why would this appear, either obvious, or incorrect?
(c) How do we solve this problem?
(a) If a person places just his hands inside a bathroom or if he has
excrement on his body, Rav Chisda forbids him to recite the Shema.
(b) What does Rav Huna say?
(c) Is it possible to reconcile Rav Papa's statement (regarding 'excrement
in its place') with Rav Huna (and with Rav Chisda - see Rashi DH 've'Rav
(a) What is the difference (regarding the obligation to wash his hands
again) between someone who goes out in the middle of a meal to urinate, (but
not in a fixed bathroom) or if he goes out to speak to a friend for an
extended period of time?
(b) What does he do to ensure that the other participants do not suspect him
of not having washed his hands?
(c) How does the Gemara differentiate in this matter between a person who
intends to continue *eating* and one who only intends drinking? Why would a
person who only intends to drink need to wash his hands at all?
(d) What personal comment did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak make in this regard?
(a) What must anyone do before he enters the Azarah? Does it make any
difference whether he entered for the purpose of performing the Avodah or
(b) How many Tevilos and how many Kidushei Yadayim ve'Raglayim did the
Kohen Gadol have to make on Yom Kipur?
(c) How many of these Tevilos took place in the Mikveh that was in the Beis
ha'Parvah? Why should this Tevilah be any different than the other Tevilos
of the day?
(a) The Mikveh was open. What did they do to prevent the people from seeing
Answers to questions
(b) They asked Ben Zoma why a Tahor person needs to Tovel before entering
What did he answer?
(c) According to Ben Zoma, the Tevilah is d'Oraysa. Rebbi Yehudah disagrees.
In his opinion, it is only mi'de'Rabbanan.
What reason does Rebbi Yehudah
give for this Takanah?
(a) We initially explain the Halachic ramifications of the Machlokes between
Ben Zoma and Rebbi Yehudah to be whether the Kohen profanes the Avodah or
not, but this is refuted from a Beraisa.
What distinction does the
Beraisa make between a Kohen Gadol who failed to Tovel or to make Kidush
Yadayim ve'Raglayim between changes of clothing or between one Avodah and
the other on the one hand, and any Kohen who did not perform Kidush Yadayim
ve'Raglayim before starting the Avodah in the morning?
(b) How does this disprove our original contention to explain the Machlokes?
(c) So what *is* their bone of contention? In which point is Ben
Zoma more stringent than Rebbi Yehudah?
(a) If Rebbi Yehudah agrees that whoever enters the Azarah requires Tevilah
(albeit mi'de'Rabbanan), then why does he exempt a Metzora from Tevilah on
the eighth day (before he stands at the Sha'ar Nikanor for the ceremony of
placing the blood on his right thumb and right big toe)?
(b) Why is this answer obvious?
(c) We try to answer that we raised the Kashya in order to mention this
Beraisa, in which Rebbi Yehudah seems to contradict himself from another
statement of his, where he adds that it is not only the *Metzora* who Tovels
in the Lishkas Metzora'im, but *anyone who is Tamei*.
What is the
(d) We try to answer that that Beraisa refers to a Metzora who has not yet
Toveled. What is the problem with this answer?
(a) We then attempt to establish the latter Beraisa (which obligates a
Metzora to Tovel) when he really had Toveled, but that he had been Mesi'ach
Da'as (i.e. had not been careful to remain Tahor).
What is the problem
(b) How do we finally establish the Beraisa (even assuming that Rebbi
Yehudah obligated Metzo'ra'im too, to Tovel)?
(c) In the second answer, we change the text of the *second* Beraisa to read
'Lo Metzora'im Amru, Ela Kol Adam'.
What is Ravina's final answer
(retaining both the original text and Rebbi Yehudah's original opinion, in
which he himself exempts a Metzora from Tevilah)?
(a) In the Beraisa that we discussed above, the Rabbanan of Rebbi Yehudah
say 'Metzora Tovel ve'Omed be'Sha'ar Nikanor'.
Answers to questions
How will we explain the
fact that they said specifically 'Metzora - if they *do* hold like Ben Zoma
(as Abaye contended)?
(b) How will we explain it - if they *don't* (as Rav Yosef concluded)?