THOUGHTS ON THE DAILY DAF
brought to you by Kollel Iyun Hadaf of Har Nof
Rosh Kollel: Rav Mordecai Kornfeld
Ask A Question about the Daf
1) WRITING TEFILIN ON THE HIDE OF NON-KOSHER ANIMALS
QUESTION: The Gemara says that Tefilin may not be written on the hide of a
Tamei animal because the flesh of that animal is not "Mutar b'Ficha"
(permissible to be eaten), as is derived from the verse (Shemos 13:9).
The SEFER HA'MANHIG asks that this verse was spoken by Hashem to the Jewish
people *before* the giving of the Torah! If so, how can the verse be
teaching that Tefilin may not be written on the hides of Tamei animals
which may not be eaten, when, at the time that this verse was said, it was
*permitted* to eat those animals?
(a) Indeed, the Torah does not mean that the Jewish people were given the
Mitzvah of Tefilin at the time that they left Egypt, before they received
the Torah. Only when they received the Torah did they receive the Mitzvah
of Tefilin, at which time they also knew which animals were forbidden.
Alternatively, the Mitzvah of Tefilin was mandatory only from the time that
the Jewish people entered into the land of Israel.
The Sefer ha'Manhig proves this from the fact that Tefilin include four
chapters from the Torah, and two of those chapters were not spoken to the
Jewish people in Egypt but only at Har Sinai. It must be that the Mitzvah
of Tefilin was not given until the giving of the Torah at Sinai or until
the Jews entered Israel. By that time, the Tamei animals were already
(b) Other Rishonim maintain that the Mitzvah applied even from the time
that the Jews went out of Egypt (see, for example, Chidushei ha'Rashba in
Menachos 35b). According to those Rishonim, what is the answer to the Sefer
ha'Manhig's question? It must be that there was a certain tradition that
the Jewish people had received from their forebears that certain animals
were destined to be forbidden when the Torah would be given.
2) SALTING FOOD ON SHABBOS
OPINIONS: The Gemara discusses the prohibition against dipping food in salt
water. Why is it prohibited?
(a) RASHI in the Mishnah (DH v'ha'Lo Hu) and in the Gemara (DH Ein Molchin)
says that when one salts food, one is being Mesaken the food. It seems that
Rashi compares it to completing a utensil, which is forbidden because of
(b) The RAMBAM (Hilchos Shabbos 22:10) writes that it is forbidden because
of Bishul, since salting "cooks" the food in a certain respect.
(c) TOSFOS earlier (75b, DH Ein Ibud) seems to say that salting food is
forbidden because of Molei'ach u'Me'abed (processing hides). Even though
there is no prohibition of processing with regard to food items, that is
true only mid'Oraisa. Mid'Rabanan, though, it is also forbidden to process
Rashi, at the end of his commentary on our Mishnah (end of DH v'Elu Hen)
also seems to say that there is an element of Me'abed involved.