REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafRosh Hashanah 30
(a) What does Rav Huna mean when he adds, with regard to the 'Amru Lo', who
permit blowing in any town with a fixed Beis-Din, 've'Im Beis-Din'?
(b) The Tana of our Mishnah writes 've'*Od* Zos Haysah Yerushalayim Yeseirah
al Yavneh', suggesting an extra leniency (over and above the fact that
Yavneh requires a Beis-Din).
Why could he not possibly have meant that,
whereas in Yerushalayim, every individual had to blow, in Yavneh, the Beis-
Din blew for everyone?
(c) How do we then refute the contention (which would have disproved Rav
Huna's statement) that the Tana meant that, whereas in Yerushalayim, they
blew at any time of day, in Yavneh they only blew when Beis-Din were in
session (from which we infer 'but not necessarily in front of Beis-Din')? If
that is not what the Tana meant, then what *did* he mean?
(a) Others quote Rav Huna on the Beraisa which, commenting on the Pasuk
"be'Yom ha'Kipurim Ta'aviru Shofar be'Chol Artzechem" - says 'to teach us
that every individual is obligated to blow Shofar on Yom Kipur of the
Yovel'; to which Rav Huna adds 've'Im Beis-Din'.
What does Rav Huna mean
(b) The Tana of the Beraisa obligates blowing the Shofar on Shabbos Yom
Kipur of the Yovel, adding 'Ish u'Veiso'.
Why can this not mean that his
wife is obligated to blow too?
(c) Then what does it mean? How do we therefore amend the phrase?
(d) Does this also incorporate times when Beis-Din are not in session?
(a) In listing the differences between Yovel and Rosh Hashanah, the Tana
writes that, whereas in Yovel, even the individuals had to blow, on Rosh
Hashanah, they did not.
Rebbi Zeira asks whether one will be Yotze if he blows in Yavneh on Shabbos
(either on Rosh Hashanah or on Yom Kipur of the Yovel) after the Beis-Din
have already closed court and are preparing to get up and leave.
Why can this statement not be understood
(b) So how do we initially explain the Beraisa (which results in a Kashya on
(c) How do we finally interpret it, to vindicate both versions of his
the two sides of the unresolved She'eilah?
(a) What Takanah did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai institute with regard to ...
(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Yirmiyah "Ki A'a'leh Aruchah Lach ...
Tziyon Hi Doresh Ein Lah"?
- ... Lulav being taken outside the Beis-Hamikdash? What is the Torah-law in this regard?
- ... eating Chadash (new crops) on the day of the Omer?
(a) Why did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai forbid the eating of Chadash on the
sixteenth of Nisan?
Answers to questions
(b) Why can his concern not have been that the Beis-Hamikdash will be built
(c) Then what *is* his concern? When might it be built?
- ... on the *sixteenth* of Nisan?
- ... on or before the *fifteenth*?
(d) How can we contend with the possibility that the Beis-Hamikdash might be
built on Shabbos or at night-time, seeing as we are not permitted to build
it on Shabbos or at night-time?
(a) According to Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak, Raban Yochanan ben Zakai forbids
eating Chadash on the sixteenth of Nisan min ha'Torah, like (his grand-
Talmid's Talmid) Rebbi Yehudah.
From which Pasuk do they derive it?
(b) On which important principle does this interpretation of the Pasuk
(c) But did Rebbi Yehudah himself not ask how, according to Raban Yochanan
ben Zakai, the prohibition can be mi'de'Rabbanan, when really it ought to be
mi'd'Oraysa? Clearly then, they argue?
(d) Then why did the Tana of our Mishnah write *Hiskin* Raban Yochanan ben
Zakai? Does this not imply that it is only mi'de'Rabbanan?
(a) And which Takanah did Raban Yochanan institute with regard to receiving
the witnesses all day (on Rosh Chodesh Tishri)?
(b) What happened once when the witnesses came after Minchah?
(c) What Takanah had Chazal instituted until Raban Yochanan ben Zakai came
and rescinded it after the Churban?
(a) In Bavel, they explained the error that occurred that year, to have been
the fact that the Levi'im did not sing Shirah at all.
What does Rebbi
(b) Rebbi Zeira quoted a Beraisa, which he instructed his son Ahavah to show
the B'nei Bavel: 'They instituted not to receive the witnesses after
Minchah, in order that there should be sufficient time in the day to bring
the Temidin, the Musafin and the drink-offerings *without mishap*'.
was he trying to prove from there?
(c) How do we refute his proof?
(a) Which Shir would the Levi'im generally sing on the morning of the
thirtieth of Elul? Why is that?
Answers to questions
(b) What would they sing ...
(c) Why is there no proof for Rebbi Zeira (that when there is a doubt, one
says the weekday Shir (rather than refraining from saying anything) from the
Beraisa, which says that if the thirtieth fell on a Thursday, they would
sing "Harninu" (and repeat it should witnesses arrive before Minchah)?
- ... at Musaf, if that day was declared Rosh Hashanah?
- ... at Minchah (together with the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim)?
- ... at Shachris, if the witnesses came *before* the Tamid shel Shachar, and it was a Thursday morning? Why is that?
- ... at Musaf, in the same case, if the witnesses came *after* the Tamid shel Shachar?