(Permission is granted to print and redistribute this material
as long as this header and the footer at the end are included.)


prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

Previous daf

Nidah 48

1) Rav Gidal quoting Rav establishes 'she'be'Bein ve'she'be'Bas' in the Beraisa (of Shanah) by Erchin; whereas Rav Yosef establishes it by the Din of our Mishnah.

(a) Why does Rav have to agree with Rav Yosef?

(b) Then why did Rav say that it refers to Erchin? Why did he not say that it refers to our Mishnah, since he anyway holds, in principle, that it does?

(c) And why does Rav Yosef say that 'she'be'Bein ve'she'be'Bas' refers to the Din in our Mishnah, and not to Erchin?

2) The Gemara rules like Rebbi Yossi ben Kipar.
(a) What does Rebbi Yossi ben Kipar say?

(b) Why does the Gemara rule like him?

Hadran Alach, 'Yotzei Dofen'!

3) If the lower Si'man of Na'arus arrived but not the upper one, she is nevertheless a Na'arah regarding Chalitzah and Yibum. In the reverse case, Rebbi Meir considers her a Ketanah.

(a) What do the Rabbanan say, and why?

(b) Why does the Mishnah need to add 'because it is impossible' (What might we have thought had the Mishnah omitted this)?

4) According to the Rabbanan, why does the Pasuk in Yechezkel write "Shadayim Nachonu, u'Se'arayich Tzimei'ach"- should it not have been the other way round?

Answers to questions


5) Everybody agrees that the lower Si'man is acceptable on its own.

(a) From where do they learn that one Siman is sufficient? Why should one not require both Simanim by a woman?

(b) And how do they know that it is the lower Si'man and not the upper one, that determines a woman's status in this regard?

Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel says that the upper Si'man of the village- women sometimes appears first, because they work in the mill.
(c) What are the Halachic ramifications of this statement? (And the same question will apply to the Tena'im, who hold that the Simanim of the left or the right side come first, for whatever reason)
6) Some Tena'im relied entirely upon women to examine a woman for Simanim. Rebbi Yehudah maintains that, for a girl under eleven and over twelve, women are believed, but for a girl between eleven and twelve (Toch ha'Perek)they are not.
(a) Why does he make this distinction?

(b) What is the point of examining a girl under the age of eleven?

(c) In which connection are women believed for a girl over twelve, and why are they believed?

7) According to Rebbi Shimon, women are believed even for girls between the ages of eleven and twelve (Toch ha'Perek).
(a) In which point does he argue with Rebbi Yehudah?
The Beraisa concludes 'ne'Ne'emenes Ishah le'Hachmir Aval Lo le'Hakeil'.
(b) Who is the author of this statement and what is he saying? (Two answers)
8) The Mishnah concludes 'Mipnei she'Amru Efshar le'Tachton La'vo' etc. Why did Rebbi need to add this? If it is in order to rule like the Rabbanan of Rebbi Meir, is it not obvious that the Halachah is like the majority? (two answers)

Answers to questions

Next daf


For further information on
subscriptions, archives and sponsorships,
contact Kollel Iyun Hadaf,