REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafNidah 34
Beis Shamai agree that gentiles have the Din of Zavin, as regards their
spittle and urine.
(a) Why then, is their blood Tahor?
(b) According to Beis Shamai, why is there a difference between the
Ma'ayanos of a Metzora'as and her blood?
(c) What do Beis Hallel hold in both of the above cases, and why?
(a) What is the difference between the blood of a Yoledes after seven days,
who has not yet Toveled, and a Yoledes before seven days - according to
(b) What do Beis Hillel hold, and over which point do they disagree with
(a) Why did Chazal decree Tum'as Zavin on all gentiles?
(b) According to Beis Shamai, why did they not decree that the blood of a
gentile should at least be Metamei when it is wet because, as long as it is
Tahor when it is dry, it will suffice as a reminder that its Tum'ah is only
(c) Then why did they decree Tumah on a gentile woman's spittle and urine
when they are wet, but not when they are dry - just like the Din Torah of a
Jewish woman? Why did they not declare them to be Tahor, as a reminder that
the Tum'ah of a gentile is only de'Rabbanan, so that one should not come to
burn Terumah and Kodshim?
(a) What is the Din concerning the Zivus and the Keri of a gentile? Are
they Tamei or Tahor according to both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel, and why?
Answers to questions
(b) Why did Chazal make the the reminder by his Keri and not by his Zivus?
(c) How does the Gemara attempt to prove this Din of Keri from a Bas
Yisrael who is Poletes the Zera of a gentile, and why is the proof
(d) How does the Gemara ultimately prove it from the following statement
've('Zera) shel Akum, Tehorah be'Chol Makom, va'Afilu be'Mei'ei
Yisre'eilis, Chutz mi'Mei Raglayim she'Bah'?
(a) How does the Gemara reconcile the statement that the Zera of a Jew is
Tamei even inside a gentile woman, with the Sha'aleh of Rav Papa: whether
the Zera of a Jew inside a gentile woman is Tamei or not?
(b) What are the two sides of Rav Papa's Sha'aleh?
(a) What exactly, does Beis Hillel learn from "la'Zachar ve'la'Nekeivah" -
written by a Metzora.
Beis Shamai argue that we cannot learn even a Metzora from a Metzara'as.
(b) Why can the Ma'ayanos of the Metzara'as not refer to her spittle and
(c) Why then, does Beis Shamai learn that the blood of a Metzara'as is only
(d) How do Beis Hillel counter Beis Shamai's reasoning?
(a) Why not, and what is the ultimate Machlokes between Beis Shamai and
In the second answer, Beis Shamai refutes Beis Hillel's argument (quoted
above in 6a), because he learns something else from "la'Zachar
ve'la'Nekeivah" written by a Metzora.
(b) What is that Derashah?
The Pasuk writes "Zos Toras ha'Zav, va'Asher Teitzei Mimenu Shichvas Zera".
(c) Where do Beis Hillel learn that from?
(a) What Sha'aleh did this Pasuk prompt Resh Lakish to ask, and what are
the two sides of his Sha'aleh?
Rava resolves the Sha'aleh from a Beraisa which explains the Pasuk "Zos
(b) Why does this Sha'aleh not apply to a Gadol?
(c) What does the Beraisa actually say?