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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nidah 11


(a) If a woman sees blood three times after jumping, does she fix a Veses for jumping, and why?

(b) In which way *does* jumping create a Veses?

The Gemara explains when the Beraisa 'Kol she'Tikava'na Machmas Ones, Lo Kav'ah Veses Klal' means that an Ones, such as jumping etc., does not fix a Veses for days alone or for jumping alone.
(c) Is it not obvious that it cannot fix a Veses for days alone, since she only saw in conjunction with the jumping -How does the Gemara answer this in the first Lashon?

(d) What does the second Lashon say?

(a) Is a woman to whom 'Dayah Sha'atah' applies, exempt from examining herself?

(b) Why are a Nidah and a Yosheves al Dam Tohar (after birth) exempt?

3) A woman who has a Veses Kavua is nevertheless obligated to use 'Eidim' whenever she is intimate.
(a) What are the two exceptions, and why?

(b) Why does a woman need to examine herself twice daily?

(c) What additional obligation does a Kohenes have in this regard?

4) Both Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish agree that a woman can fix a Veses if she saw the first two sightings during the days when she was fit to become a Zavah (i.e. the eleven days after the termination of her Nidus).
(a) Can she fix her Veses if the first two times that she saw, she was in the middle of her Nidus (Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish)?

(b) What is the problem from out Mishnah with Rebbi Yochanan, who says that she can?

(c) How does Rebbi Yochanan resolve this problem?

5) Our Mishnah exempts a woman from examining herself during her days of 'Dam Tohar' - after she has given birth; and the Gemara thinks that this includes the last day of Dam Tamei (the seventh day after a boy, the fourteenth after a girl).
(a) What makes the Gemara think that?
Rav holds that the blood that she sees during her days of Tum'ah and the blood that she sees during the days of Taharah flows from 'the same fountain'; whereas according to Levi,they flow from two different fountains.
(b) Why does our Mishnah appear to go not like Levi?
Levi answers that the author of our Mishnah is Beis Shamai, who does indeed hold that the two bloods flow from 'the same fountain'.
(c) How can Rebbi teach a Stam Mishnah like Beis Shamai?
The Gemara then gives another answer retracting from its previous contention (quoted in a).
(d) What then, is the Chidush of the Mishnah?

(e) Why would the examination be futile, both according to Levi and according to Rav?

Answers to questions


6) If a girl whose time to see blood has not yet arrived, gets married, according to Beis Shamai, she is not Temei'ah for four nights.

(a) What do Beis Hillel hold?

(b) How does Rav Gidal Amar Shmuel qualify this?

She will also be Temei'ah if she saw even one night without Tashmish.


(a) In which case is she Temei'ah even if she saw blood because of Tashmish?

(b) What does the Gemara ask on this from our Mishnah, which exempts a Besulah whose blood is Tahor, from using Eidim during Tashmish?

Rava answers this by first of all creating a discrepancy in the Mishnah itself, where the Reisha does not include a Besulah among those women who are exempt from examining themselves.
(c) How does Rava resolve both difficulties with one stroke?

(d) But why does she not require an examination *before* Tashmish?

8) Why is a woman obligated to examine herself
(a) ...after Tashmish?

(b) ...before Tashmish?

Rav Yehudah quoting Shmuel, says that a woman is not obligated to examine herself at all, if she is not working on Taharos. His initial statement pertains to the Mishnah, which rules that a woman needs to examine herself twice daily.
(c) Why would Shmuel's initial statement be superfluous, in view of the Mishnah itself?

(d) Why is his ultimate statement not understood from the Mishnah later on, which writes that all women are be'Chezkas Taharah to their husbands?

The Gemara concludes that Shmuel is coming to teach us that, even when a woman has no Veses, she is exempt from examining herself if it is for her husband only.
(e) Why then, does the Mishnah make a point of including a woman who does have a Veses in this Din?
(a) Why does Shmuel tell us the same Din twice, when he is quoted as saying 'Ishah she'Ein Lah Veses, Asurah le'Shamesh Ad she'Tivdok'?

(b) When does a woman not have a Chezkas Taharah for her husband?

Answers to questions

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