THOUGHTS ON THE DAILY DAF
brought to you by Kollel Iyun Hadaf of Har Nof
Rosh Kollel: Rav Mordecai Kornfeld
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1)WHEN IS "HEFKER" OBLIGATED IN "MATNOS ANIYIM" ?
QUESTION: The Gemara rules that if a person was Mafkir his field and
harvested it early the next morning, the produce of the field is obligated
in Matnos Aniyim but not in Ma'asros.
Hefker is normally exempt from both Matnos Aniyim and Ma'asros. Why then is
this field *obligated* in Matnos Aniyim?
(a) RASHI (DH Ta Shma; see also Rashi Temurah 6a DH Chayav) explains that
only "fully Hefker" produce is exempt from Matnos Aniyim. This field is not
fully Hefker and is thus still obligated in Matnos Aniyim. In what way does
Rashi mean that the field only "partially" Hefker?
Perhaps it is not fully Hefker since it was not made Hefker in front of
three people (as required by the Gemara in Nedarim 45b). Since it was not
made Hefker in a public manner, there is circumstantial evidence that it is
only a half-hearted Hefker. (Besides, the fact that the owner harvested the
fruits early the next morning certainly leads us to conclude that he did
not really want it to be Hefker.) (M. Kornfeld)
(b) TOSFOS (Bava Kama 28a DH Zeh and Temurah 6a DH ha'Mafkir) explains that
a field is only exempt from Matnos Aniyim if it is *presently* Hefker. The
fact that a field was once Hefker does not remove from it the obligation of
Matnos Aniyim. The obligation of separating Ma'aser from a field, on the
other hand, depends upon whether the field was *once* Hefker. Therefore, a
field that was Hefker last night is exempt from Ma'aser.
Thus, according to Rashi the Beraisa is discussing a person who was Mafkir
the fruits of his field and did *not* reclaim them before they were
harvested. According to Tosfos, on the other hand, the Beraisa is
discussing a person who was Mafkir the field and *did* reclaim it before
picking the fruit the following morning.
2) WHAT IS "BI'UR"?
OPINIONS: We are taught that once a particular fruit is no longer to be
found in the fields, there is an obligation to do Bi'ur for what remains of
that fruit in people's homes. What constitutes "Bi'ur"?
(a) The RAMBAM (Hilchos Shemitah v'Yovel 7:3) rules that the Mitzvah of
Bi'ur is to be rid of all that remains of the fruit after a certain date.
This may be done by eating them or by destroying them before that date.
HALACHAH: The CHAZON ISH rules that today we may be lenient and conduct
ourselves according to the RASH, since Shevi'is is only mid'Rabanan today.
(b) The RA'AVAD (ad.loc.) disagrees. He explains that there are two parts
to Bi'ur: (1) When there are none of these particular fruits left in a
particular *region*, the Mitzvah of Bi'ur is to be *Mafkir* what remains of
those fruits in one's possession. (2) When there are none of a particular
species left in the entire *Eretz Yisroel*, the fruits must be *destroyed*.
(c) The RAMBAN (Vayikra 25:7) and the RASH (Shevi'is 9:8) rule that the
obligation of Bi'ur is simply to be Mafkir the fruits by declaring them
Hefker in the presence of three people. (The Yerushalmi adds that they may
be made Hefker in the market place even if no one is presently there.)
3) MAKING A BERACHAH AFTER PERFORMING MITZVOS
OPINIONS: The Mishnah mentions that in Ma'arava, the Jews would recite a
Berachah after the performance of Mitzvos, such as when they removed their
Tefillin at the end of the day. After which Mitzvos was a Berachah recited
(a) RABBEINU TAM (quoted by TOSFOS DH vli'Vnei) explains that in Ma'arava
they only made a Berachah when they removed their Tefillin before
nightfall, since the verse, "v'Shamartah Es *ha'Chukah*" forbids wearing
them at night. They did not recite a Berachah after they completed any
other Mitzvah or after removing their Tefillin in the morning, since the
Torah does not call such acts "Chukah."
HALACHAH: The TUR (Orach Chayim 29) quotes RAV HAI GOAN who rules that a
person may recite a Berachah when he removes his Tefillin at the end of the
day. The TUR disagrees. He rules that since there is no obligation to
recite such a Berachah, it will be a Berachah l'Vatalah if recited.
If they did not recite a Berachah after any other Mitzvah, why did the
Gemara conclude that the ruling of the Mishnah (that a Berachah Rishonah is
sometimes recited without a Berachah Acharonah) was made with regard to
scents? We could have simply explained that it is referring to all other
Mitzvos besides Tefillin? RABBEINU TAM answers that the Gemara could have
in fact explained that the Mishnah was referring to other Mitzvos.
(b)The RASHBA and RITVA reject RABBEINU TAM's ruling. They explain that in
Ma'arava they made Berachos after all Mitzvos whose obligations come to an
end (either because the Mitzvah has been completed, such as with Lulav or
Shofar, or because the obligation ceases to apply, such as Tefillin or
Tzitzis at night).
The ROKEACH explains that they recited the Berachah of *Lishmor Chukav*
after they completed a Mitzvah based on the verse, "u'Shamartem Es
Chukosai" (Vayikra 18:5).
(c) The Ritva also explains that in Ma'arava a Berachah was recited after
every Mitzvah, but he asserts that only after they removed their Tefillin
did they recite Lishmor *Chukav*, based on the verse "v'Shamartem Es
ha'*Chukah*. After they completed other Mitzvos they recited Lishmor