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Chulin, 113


OPINIONS: Shmuel rules that blood leaves the meat only when the meat it is salted "Yafeh Yafeh" ("very well"), and rinsed "Yafeh Yafeh." The Beraisa teaches that the meat must be rinsed both before salting and after salting.

Why is it necessary to soak meat before salting it?

(a) The RE'AH explains that the meat must be rinsed before salting in order to remove the dry blood that may have accumulated on the surface of the flesh. If the meat is salted while the dried blood is still present, the meat will absorb the dried blood after it finishes discharging its internal blood.

(b) The RAN explains that the meat must be rinsed in order to soften it so that the salting will be effective to extract its blood.

There are numerous practical differences between these two explanations.

First, when the meat was cut after it was soaked but before it was salted, according to the Ran there is no need to wash the meat again, since the meat was already softened the first time it was rinsed. According to the Re'ah, when the meat was cut it must be rinsed again, because the new surface of the meat now contains dried blood that must be removed.

Second, when the meat was not rinsed before it was salted, and the meat was then cooked with other food, according to the Ran the mixture is permitted only if the amount of food in the mixture is sixty times greater than the entire blood content of the piece of meat. According to the Re'ah, the mixture is permitted as long as the amount of food in the mixture is sixty times greater than the amount of blood that was on the *surface* of the meat.

Third, according to the Re'ah it suffices to rinse the meat well before salting, because a simple rinsing removes the dried blood. The Ran, however, requires that the meat be thoroughly soaked (for half an hour) in order for it to become soft before salting.

(REBBI AKIVA EIGER (YD 69:3) suggests that if the meat was soaked on one side, and rinsed on the other, it suffices according to all opinions. Soaking on one side is enough to soften the entire piece of meat (as well as to remove the dried blood on the surface of that side), while rinsing it well on the other side removes the remaining dried blood on that side.)

Fourth, when meat was salted without first being washed, may one wash the meat and then salt it again? According to the Ran, the salt is unable to extract blood until the meat is properly soaked. Therefore, soaking it and salting it again will serve to remove the blood. According to the Re'ah, however, some of the dried blood on the surface of the meat becomes absorbed by the meat when it is salted without first being rinsed, and such blood will not come out through a second salting.

HALACHAH: The SHULCHAN ARUCH (YD 69:1) rules that when meat was cut after it was soaked, it must be rinsed again before salting, like the opinion of the Re'ah. The REMA adds that if the meat was not rinsed again before being salted, it is considered as though it was not rinsed at all. Regarding whether meat must be soaked or whether it suffices to rinse it, l'Chatchilah we follow the opinion of the Ran who requires that it be soaked. The Rema (YD 69:2) writes that b'Di'eved, if it was rinsed well but not soaked, it may be salted and eaten. (Z. Wainstein)

OPINIONS: Shmuel rules that blood leaves the meat only when the meat it is salted "Yafeh Yafeh" ("very well"), and rinsed "Yafeh Yafeh." The Beraisa teaches that the meat must be rinsed both before salting and after salting.

What is the implication of salting and rinsing meat "Yafeh Yafeh"? What exactly does this mean in practice?

(a) The ROSH (8:43) writes that salting meat "Yafeh Yafeh" involves spreading copious amounts of salt on the meat so that all parts of the meat are covered with salt. The BI'UR HA'GRA (YD 69:19) explains that this is the meaning of salting meat "Yafeh Yafeh."

The Rosh (8:33) discusses the specific amount of salt that is necessary for Melichah. He cites the Gemara in Menachos (21a) which explains the verse, "[All of your Korbanos] you shall salt with salt" -- "ba'Melach Timlach" (Vayikra 2:13). Why does the verse use the repetitive phrase, "You shall salt with salt," and not say simply, "You shall salt"? The Gemara explains that we might have thought that it suffices to place enough salt to give taste to the meat. By saying "ba'Melach Timlach," the Torah teaches that one must a large amount of salt on the meat so that it ruins the taste of the meat. This is the ruling of the SHULCHAN ARUCH (YD 69:4), who writes that one must use enough salt so that the meat becomes inedible because of the salt on it.

(b) The RAN (page 42a of the pages of the Rif) adds in the name of the RAMBAN that the words "Yafeh Yafeh" also imply that when one wants to cook meat without cutting it into pieces, he must salt the meat on the inside, and not only on the outside surface.

(c) The DIVREI CHAMUDOS (#204) to the Rosh cites the MORDECHAI who writes that some forbid the piece of meat even b'Di'eved when it was not salted on both sides. This opinion maintains that "Yafeh Yafeh" means that the meat must be salted on both sides. However, the Divrei Chamudos cites the RASHBA who writes that salting the meat on both sides is not obligatory, but is a "Mitzvah Min ha'Muvchar," the most preferable way to do the Mitzvah. If one salted the meat on only one side, the meat is permitted b'Di'eved. The Rashba states that this is logical, because if salting one side of a piece of meat would not be sufficient, then it would follow that salting one side of an extremely thin piece of meat is not sufficient to extract the blood, while salting both sides of an extremely thick piece of meat can extract the blood even from the center of the piece, and both of these cases are certainly not logical.

HALACHAH: The SHULCHAN ARUCH (YD 69:4) rules that a piece of meat that was salted on only one side is permitted b'Di'eved. The REMA cites the stringent opinion that the meat is prohibited b'Di'eved. However, if the meat was salted on one side but not yet cooked, the second side may be salted as long as twelve hours have not passed since the salting of the first side. (The SHACH (69:22) writes that even in this case, if the meat was rinsed after the first side was salted, salting the second side will not be effective, because the rinsing causes the pores, through which the blood exits, to close. If twelve hours have passed, the only way to permit the meat is by roasting it, whereby the fire extracts the blood, and the salted side does not absorb the blood from the side that was not salted.

Regarding the meaning of *rinsing* the meat "Yafeh Yafeh," the RAN cites the RAMBAN who derives from these words that the meat must be rinsed twice after it is salted (in addition to the rinsing that is done before it is salted). The first rinsing is done in a perforated vessel in order to remove the salt. The second rinsing is done in a non-perforated vessel. It is done in order to remove any remaining drops of blood on the surface of the meat.) (D. Bloom)


QUESTION: Shmuel maintains that from the repetition of the word "Gedi" in the verses regarding the Isur of cooking meat with milk we learn that the Isur applies to cooking Chelev with milk, and to cooking Neveilah with milk. The principle of "Ein Isur Chal Al Isur" does not apply, because, according to the Gemara's first version, Shmuel does not agree with that principle and he holds that "Isur Chal Al Isur."

However, it should be prohibited to cook Neveilah with milk even according to the opinion that maintains "Ein Isur Chal Al Isur." The Isur of meat and milk includes an Isur Hana'ah -- it is prohibited to benefit from a mixture of meat and milk. Accordingly, it is an "Isur Mosif" which adds an element of Isur to the existing Isur, because the Isur of Neveilah only prohibits the meat to be eaten, while the Isur of meat with milk prohibits deriving benefit from it!


(a) The RAMBAM (Perush ha'Mishnayos to Kerisus 3:4) explains that when the Torah prohibits eating meat with milk, and benefiting from a mixture of meat and milk, it uses the same phrase, "Lo Tevashel." The use of the same word teaches that when the Isur of Achilah does not apply, the Isur of Hana'ah also does not apply. With regard to a mixture of Neveilah with milk, if the prohibition to eat meat and milk does not take effect because "Ein Isur Chal Al Isur" (since the mixture is already prohibited to be eaten because of the Isur of Neveilah), then the Isur of Hana'ah also does not take effect, and thus it cannot be an "Isur Mosif"! (The Rambam refers to this explanation as a "Nekudah Nifla'ah" -- a "wonderful point.")

(b) TOSFOS (101a, end of DH Isur) answers that when an Isur adds only an Isur Hana'ah to the object, it is not called an "Isur Mosif," but rather it is called merely an "Isur Chamur." (Z. Wainstein)

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